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Date Posted: 16:18:31 10/01/02 Tue
Author: Pastor Reckart
Subject: Re: Questions #3 & #4
In reply to: PFP 's message, "Questions #3 & #4" on 19:46:33 09/29/02 Sun

PFP makes even more Preterist blunders, typical of those in a delusion.

PFP outright lied in his answer to the following question:

3. When did the Kingdom of God come into existence:
A.) Before Calvary and the events of Acts 2,
B.) Sometime between Calvary and 70 AD, or
C.) After 70 AD?

PFP Answered: None of the Above The Kingdom of God has always “existed.”

Response to PFP lies. The Word of God says the following--

"And in the days of these kings shall the God of heaven set up a kingdom, which shall never be destroyed: and the kingdom shall not be left to other people, but it shall break in pieces and consume all these kingdoms, and it shall stand for ever" (Dan 2:44). The stone kingdom cut out of the mountain DID NOT ALWAYS EXIST. It came into existence when it was cut out of the mountain. When was it cut out of the mountain? That is when it came into existence.

Obviously if God is going to set up a Kingdom then THIS KINGDOM never existed before. Then again we have Jesus teaching the Apostles to pray: "Thy Kingdom come" (Matt 6:10). The Messianic Kingdom of the Messiah did not pre-exist the day of Pentecost. John preached it was at hand and all men must repent to come into it (Matt 3:1-2). Jesus preached the same message, in fact the first message he preached (Matt 4:17).

What was taken from the unbelieving Jews was the OFFER of the Kingdom. Romans 11 shows us they were broken out because of unbelief and the Gentiles grafted in. Whatever the Gentiles was grafted into is the Kingdom of God.

Jesus predicted the Kingdom of God would come with power (Mark 9:10). He predicted the power would come with the Holy Ghost (Acts 1:8). The Holy Ghost came on the day of Pentecost (Acts 2:1-4), therefore the Kingdom came on the day of Pentecost. Peter had the keys to this Kingdom. The Church of Matthew 16:18 is the Kingdom of Mathew 16:19.

So, it is a lie to say the Messianic Kingdom of Jesus always existed. It DID NOT! The Messianic Kingdom was unlike any other because Jesus was King over this Kingdom and it could not have existed before he established it and came riding into Jerusalem on an ass as the multitudes cried Hossana, Blessed is he that cometh in the name of the Lord. This was Israel's King coming and it was the time of the Kingdom to be ushered in. There is a difference in the existace of a nation and a Kingdom. Israel was a nation because it had no king. It can be a kingdom ONLY WHEN IT HAS A KING!

PFP makes even more blunders: "If you meant to ask: when was the Kingdom "taken from the Jews and Given to a nation who would bear the fruits thereof", then the events of 66-70 AD fulfilled that promise."

Response: this false doctrine is hideous, evil, of the devil, and should not be accepted by any Christian. What PFP is saying is that the Jews and the Gentiles of the early Church were not in the Kingdom, had no part in the Kingdom, could not be born again into it according to John 3:3-5, BECAUSE THE KINGDOM WOULD NOT COME TO THE CHURCH UNTIL AFTER 70AD. Liar, Liar, Liar! I am being mean-spiritied here now, ...right? I just believe when a person is a gross liar they chould be called such. Did the Apostles believe the Kingdom did not come to the Church until after 70AD? Absolutely not! Consider:

"Jesus answered and said unto him, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born again, he cannot see the Kingdom of God. (5)...Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the Kingdom of God" (John 3:3-5)

Note: are we to believe Nicodemus could not come into the Church as the Kingdom and be saved until after 70AD? This Preterist lie is naked and has no clothes.

"But when they believed Philip preaching the things concerning the Kingdom of God, and the name of Jesus Christ, they were baptized, both men and women" (Acts 8:12).

There are many New Testament text mentioning the Kingdom of God existing during the time before 70AD (acts 14:22, 19:8, 20:25, 28:23, 28:31, Rom 14:17, 1Cor 6:9,10; 15:50, Col 1:13, 4:12, 1Thes 2:12, 2Thes 1:5, Heb 1:8, 12:28, James 2:5, 2Pet 1:11, Rev. 1:9). All point to an existing Kingdom prior to 70AD.

PFP blunders even more in answer to #4. "Was the Gospel that was preached by the Apostles and Paul prior to 70AD the same Gospel that was preached "after" 70AD?"

Answer: YES! The Bible, and therefore preterism, teaches that the Gospel, which sole purpose is to be preached to inners who dwell on earth (Revelation 14:6), is EVERLASTING. It has no “use by” or “Expiration" date. It was given to “ALWAYS” be preached, forever.

Response to PFP: Preterist are famous for saying all of Matthew 24 has been fulfilled. This means the preaching of the Gospel to all the world and then shall the end come (verse 14), would END THE GOSPEL preaching in 70AD! For that is when these reprobates say the END CAME! The Gospel was to be preached to all nations and the finality would be the end would come. When the end comes in Matthew 24 is there any record the Gospel was continued to be preached? No, there is no record. The preaching of the Gospel would usher in the end. The end would cease the Gospel of the Kingdom. This is the Preterist lie that the end came in 70AD but the Gospel that ushered in the end DID NOT! They now want to go back to Matthew 24:14 and say the preaching of the Gospel of the Kingdom did not end when the end came in 70AD. How convienent for them to make this neat switch. Why MUST they do it? Because they would have no Gospel at all to preach since there is one Gospel. If the one Gospel Paul preached ceased in 70AD these liars are forced to tell us what the Gospel is now for us to enter into the Kingdom. They would leave us without a Gospel and without salvation. So they must allow for the Gospel of the Kingdom to not end when the end comes. PFP also blunders when he/she says the preaching of the Gospel of the Kingdom will always exist. This is false! Is this going to continue throughout all eternity? No, the purpose of the earthly Kingdom is to take us to a heavenly Kingdom of which the early was only a figure or a type. The coming of the millennial Kingdom phase of the Kingdom of God will finalize the Kingdom of God upon the earth. There will come a time when the Son will deliver the Kingdom to the Father, when he has put down all rule and authority. When the Son surrenders it up to the Father, he is no longer in possession of it as the Son (1Cor 15:24).

The real answer to #3 and #4 is the Kingdom came on the day of Pentecost and it was not postponed until 70AD. Was the same Gospel preached before 70AD the same one to be preached after 70AD? Yes, but notice this pre-70AD Gospel of the Kingdom was preached by Peter first on the Day of Pentecost when he gave that powerful earth-shaking Acts 2:38 message. Any Gospel that does not include the contents of Acts 2:38 as the faith into the Kingdom, is a false Gospel. Most Preterist deny Acts 2:38 has any relevance to New Covenant salvation. So they not only have another Gospel before 70AD, they have a different one after 70AD. The same message preached by Peter in Acts 2:38 is the one Gospel message to be preached to all nations (as many as the Lord our God shall call).

The Kingdom came on the day of Pentecost. To claim it did not come to the Church until after 70AD is a false doctrine!

Pastor Reckart

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