Author:
Alfred T. Estolonio
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Date Posted: 11:07:20 08/26/06 Sat
In reply to:
Ronald
's message, "2 Peter 1:1 - Is Jesus Called "God" in this verse?" on 14:23:52 03/02/06 Thu
My reaction towards this query is Negative. > 2 Peter 1:1 is often listed, amongst many other
>scriptures, as a place that Jesus is called "God",
>and, from this, many conclude that Jesus is Yahweh. I
>thought the following research might be helpful.
>
>2 Peter 1:1
>From four translations:
>
>SIMON PETER, a servant and legate of Jesus the
>Messiah, to those who have obtained equally precious
>faith with us, through the righteousness of Our Lord
>and Redeemer, Jesus the Messiah;
>
>
>Murdock's Syriac Translation
>Simon Peter, a servant and apostle of Jesus Christ, to
>them that have obtained a like precious faith with us
>in the righteousness of our God and [the] Saviour
>Jesus Christ:
>
>
>American Standard Version
>Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ,
>to them that have obtained like precious faith with us
>through the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus
>Christ:
>
>
>King James Version
>Simeon Peter, a servant and apostle of Jesus Christ,
>To those who have obtained a faith of equal standing
>with ours in the righteousness of our God and Savior
>Jesus Christ:
>
>
>Revised Standard Version
>As can be seen from the above, there are several ways
>that translators have rendered this verse, so there is
>some dispute over how it should be viewed. If the
>Syriac is correct, then we should plainly see that
>this verse is not referring to Jesus as Yahweh. The
>Syriac is probably correct, since this is the
>expression that Peter used in 2 Peter 1:11; 2:20; 3:2
>and 3:18.
>
>However, even if Jesus is being called "THEOS" in this
>verse, this would not mean that Jesus is Yahweh, since
>the Greek word THEOS, based on the Hebrew words EL and
>ELOHIM, can take on a more general meaning than
>Supreme Being, or a false "god".* Yahweh is the God
>and Father of Jesus. (Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3;
>11:31; Ephesians 1:3,17; 1 Peter 1:3) The Father of
>Jesus is the only true God who sent Jesus. (John
>17:1,3; Deuteronomy 18:15-19) Jesus is not that only
>true God who sent him.
>==========
>*See the study on the Hebraic usages of words for
>"God":
>http://reslight.net/hebraicusage.html
>
>However, the above translations show that there is not
>a general agreement as to how the verse should be
>translated, even from the Textus Receptus (Recieved
>Text). Some translations make a total separation
>between "God" and "our Savior", while others make it
>appear that Jesus is being called "our God and Savior".
>
>The dispute in this verse is usually over whether
>Sharp's "article+substantive-kai-substantive" rule
>should apply or not. Sharp's first rule of greek
>grammar states: "When two personal nouns of the same
>case are connected by the copulative kai, if the
>former has the definite article, and the latter has
>not, they both relate to the same person." In
>accordance with this, his rule #6 states: "If they are
>connected by the copulative, and both have the
>article, they relate also to different persons." He
>then has other rules that give "exceptions" to these
>rules. Additonally, his rules and exceptions cannot be
>applied to the Setuagint Greek with any degree of
>consistency, so we cannot be for sure how valid these
>rules are. Sharp's purpose for his study was to prove
>that Jesus is God, and the manner in which he narrows
>the rules and exceptions as applied to the NT Greek
>seems to narrow these rules to the purpose he sought.
>For the first rule to apply, both must be personal,
>both must be singular, and both must be non-proper
>(i.e., common terms, not proper names). Sharp makes an
>exception to his rule #6 for John 20:28, on the
>grounds that the evidence shows that it is speaking of
>one person.* Assuming the validity of Sharp's rules,
>the question is, are there proper names being used in
>2 Peter 1:1, or does the context indicate that two
>persons are being referred to? Is there contextual
>evidence that shows that two persons, and not one, are
>being referred to? Was Peter trying to follow some
>alleged rule of Greek grammar to indicate that Jesus
>is God, or was he thinking of God and Jesus as two
>separate persons when he wrote 2 Peter 1:1? Sharp, of
>course, in accordance with the purpose of his study,
>concluded that Peter is definitely calling Jesus "God"
>in 2 Peter 1:1. Our question is, is his conclusion
>solid?
>==========
>*See the study on John 20:28
>http://reslight.net/john20-28.html
>
>Many argue that in 2 Peter 1:1, "God" can be viewed as
>a proper name, and that "Savior Jesus Christ" can also
>viewed as a proper name, which would call for an
>exception to Sharp's general rule, and mean that two
>different persons are being spoken of.
>
>Another exception to Sharp's rule is that provided by
>evidence and context. We therefore note a tradition
>found in the New Testament letters that show that it
>was usual to start their greetings by references both
>the Father and his Son. This gives another reason to
>believe that, if Peter did actual use the word "God"
>here, rather "the Lord" (Syriac), then it should be
>viewed as applied to the God and Father of Jesus, not
>to Jesus.
>
>Further evidence can be seen in the context, where
>Peter makes references to "God" as the Father, and
>distinguishes "God" from Jesus (1 Peter 1:2,3,21; 2:5;
>3:18,21; 4:10; 2 Peter 1:17); thus it is highly
>unlikely that Peter meant anything different in 2
>Peter 1:1. Even in the following verse Peter
>distinguishes between God and Jesus, thus the context
>does indicate two persons are being referred to. (2
>Peter 1:2) This is the basis for some translations
>that render this in such a way so as to show a
>distinction between "God" and "Our Savior, Jesus
>Christ".
>
>Below are some other renderings of the phrase from 2
>Peter 1:1, in which a distinction is indicated between
>God and Jesus:
>
>the righteousness of God and our Savior Jesus Christ
>-- Third Millenium Bible translation
>
>of our God and the Saviour Jesus Christ -- New Revised
>Standard Version, margin
>
>through the righteousness of our God and of our
>Deliverer Yeshua the Messiah -- The Complete Jewish
>Bible translation
>
>through the righteousness of God and our Savior Jesus
>Christ -- Webster's Bible Translation
>
>righteousness of our God and of our Saviour Jesus
>Christ. -- Weymouth New Testament
>
>the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ
>-- New International Verson
>
>our God and the savior Jesus Christ -- New American
>Bible translation, margin
>
>the righteousness of our God, and the Saviour, Jesus
>Christ: -- Concordant Literal New Testament
>
>thro' the veracity of our God, and of Jesus Christ. --
>Daniel Mace New Testament (1729)
>
>the righteousness of our God and our Savior, Jesus
>Christ -- Literal Translation of the HOLY BIBLE, by
>Jay P. Green, Sr.
>
>the righteousness of our God and of our Savior Jesus
>Christ -- Simple English Bible translation
>
>share the faith that God in his justice has equally
>allotted to us; as well as that of our Saviour Jesus
>Christ. -- 21st Century NT
>
>Of course, if the Syriac manuscript is correct, the
>word "God" does not even appear in 2 Peter 1:1.
>
>At any rate, one can see that it is very questionable
>that Peter is referring to Jesus as THEOS. Of course,
>Jesus is our THEOS, our might, in the power and
>authority given to him by God, but this usage of THEOS
>does not mean that Jesus is God, thus there is nothing
>in 2 Peter 1:1 that says that Jesus is Jehovah God.
>Definitely, there is surely nothing there that gives
>any idea that Jesus is a person of God, or that there
>are three persons in God.
>
>Below are some links related to the above, although I
>do not necessarily agree with all that is said.
>
>http://jehovah.to/exe/discussion/more_5.htm
>Our Savior Jesus Christ by Greg Stafford
>
>http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek/test-archives/html4/1998-
>04/index.html#24763
>B-Greek: Sharp's Rule and Quasi-Propr Names (Forum
>Discussions)
>
>http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek/test-archives/html4/1998-
>04/index.html#24805
>BGreek Discussion: Another Carson Question,
>Granville-Sharp Rule
>
>http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek/test-archives/html4/1998-
>04/index.html#24838
>BGreek: Final Thoughts on Sharp's Rule - Greg
>Stafford; see also Correction
>
>http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek/test-archives/html4/1996-
>06/13588.html
>BGreek Forum Discussion: Sharp's Rule
>
>http://www.thechristadelphians.org/forums/index.php?sho
>wtopic=17&st=0&
>Titus 2:13 & 2 Peter 1:1, Granville Sharp vs Biblical
>Consistency
>
>========
>
>Christian love,
>Ronald
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