Is Revelation a phenomenon? -- Towards Revelational Understanding

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Subject: Is Revelation a phenomenon?

Author:
Michael L Mahan

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Date Posted: 06:35:31 12/12/01 Wed

I think many of us have understood that (sum) Revelation is obviously objective in its nature. According to Revelation 1:1-3 and other passages there seems to be an nature of the Revelation which negates its manipulation by any of those who delivered it. To be bried, the Word is never determined nor changed nor in any way dependent upon a subject.

From this same passage that describes the objective nature of the Word, we can say that at some point in time (the actual measurable chronological point is unimportant) the message was created in some type of noumenal existence.

What interests me at the present time is our responsability in representatng Revelation . Under normal conditions, any object (noumenon) is only accessable to us through the sensorum and thus we only deal with phenomena. Yet the nature of phenoma is such that we "probe" them in order to attach some sort of significance to them. No phenomenon may "explain" itself because of the literal impossibility of objectivity and because of the semiotic nature of existence. To be brief again, no fact inherently contains its own representation. The cartesian partition exists between every phenomenon and any description of it.

So here I pose the question: Does Revelation qualify as a phenomenon in the strictest sense? Scripture seems to act as in the indexical position, characterizing not only itself, but also all phenomenon. There is much more reasoning to go into this, but I prefer to offer the question to all your intellects. Help me out here. what arguments for and against this concept can you provide? Any insights?

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