Subject: Re: 10 Questions that make me think |
Author: Psychology
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Date Posted: 10:16:19 05/18/02 Sat
In reply to:
Proph
's message, "10 Questions that make me think" on 22:45:03 05/14/02 Tue
I response to the one line responding to my last post..."As far as pagan stories of 3 part deities.God has been around forever, you think that no one has ever miscontrued his revelation before? Read Romans the first 3 chapters and you will get some real knowledge."...I have the following to say. This argument is one used by many to explain the very many similarities between Christianity and ancient Paganism. We tend to say, "Since God was here since the beginning, it is understandable that pagans may have taken the truth and misconstrued it...and hence the similarities." However, I believe that this idea is weak for the following reasons. And please do here me out. Let us really try to open our minds and analyze this completely without prior biases. If we agree that these pagans took the truth and corrupted/compromised it thousands of years before Christ, then we would have to say, therefore, that there was a similar form of Christianity being practiced thousands of years before Christ. How else could these pagans corrupt something if it didn't exist yet. Now, we also agree that until Christ's death, the truth as preached and practiced by all of the prophets, and biblical personalities including the people of God as described in the bible, were practicing religion as defined by the old covenant. Follow me. Do we agree that there were no followers of God praying in the name of Jesus, the son, at this time? Do we agree that there were no followers of God engaging in holy communion? Yes, we all agree about this (if you do not, please explain). So, how is it that there were Greeks, Egyptians, Persians, etc. practicing these religions which resemble todays Christianity? How is it that the concept of a 3 part God was known and preached by pagan sages, but was completely unknown to...lets say Moses or Noah??? Why is it that pagans spread the idea of communion, through there religion Mithraism, from India to Persia over 1 thousand years before the birth of Christ while Jews in Israel knew nothing about the concept? Do we ever hear David, in all of his Psalms, speak of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit? If so, please let me know. For you see, I am not afraid to be wrong. I only am concerned with what is real, what is truth. I want to investigate this issue. So, I ask for a true response that does not beat around these rather fundamental questions. Notice, I received no comment concerning my use of the references to women as being obvious signs of man's hand in the Bible. Please, let us discuss this, so that we may better understand.
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