Re: Question #1 -- The Apostolic Defender Board

[ Show ]

Support VoyForums

[ Shrink ]

VoyForums Announcement: Programming and providing support for this service has been a labor of love since 1997. We are one of the few services online who values our users' privacy, and have never sold your information. We have even fought hard to defend your privacy in legal cases; however, we've done it with almost no financial support -- paying out of pocket to continue providing the service. Due to the issues imposed on us by advertisers, we also stopped hosting most ads on the forums many years ago. We hope you appreciate our efforts.

Show your support by donating any amount. (Note: We are still technically a for-profit company, so your contribution is not tax-deductible.) PayPal Acct: Feedback:

Donate to VoyForums (PayPal):

[ Login ] [ Contact Forum Admin ] [ Main index ] [ Post a new message ] [ Search | Check update time ]

[ Next Thread | Previous Thread | Next Message | Previous Message ]

Date Posted: 09:09:29 10/05/02 Sat
Author: PFP
Subject: Re: Question #1
In reply to: Pastor Reckart 's message, "Re: Question #1" on 10:30:12 10/01/02 Tue

>PFP wrote: " The Bible, and therefore preterism,
>affirms that the Old Covenant Law had not yet passed
>away as of the 60�s AD (Hebrews 8:13), and the
>Apostles continued to observe every jot and tittle of
>the Law as they were instructed to by their Master.
>
>Response: Antother false doctrine. The Word of God
>says the Law was added because of transgressions
>"UNTIL" the seed should come to whom the promises were
>made and it was ordained in the hands of a mediator
>(Gal 3:19). When Preterst claim the law remained past
>Calvary and in full force and effect to 70AD they
>nullify the work of the Mediator on the Cross. They
>totally destroy the work of the Cross for faith
>salvation and keep salvation in the works of the Law.
>This kind of false doctrine is what Paul wrote the
>whole book of Galatians against, the Judaizers. The
>Law was added at Mt. Sinai and it was substracted at
>Mt. Calvary. There was absolutely NO SALVATION in any
>part or portion of the Law after Calvary. The
>Apostles were sent to preach the Gospel of the Kingdom
>to all nations (Matthew 24:14), NOT TO GO PREACH THE
>LAW COVENANT UNTIL 70AD and its alleged end. The
>Preterist would have us believe the Law and Grace
>co-existed side by side and two Covenants were in
>existence at the same time. How else can they have it,
>if the Law continues until 70AD?

I see in all of your responses to me thus far, you have neglected to directly address the scriptures I provide as prooftexts, offering an alternate rendering that supports your postiion.

I must assume this is a simple oversight for such a learned man as yourself, and am happy to again provide you the opportunity to begin to address them directly.

Lest start with Hebrews 8:13 shall we?

Please explain for our readers, in you're understanding, what the writer of Hebrews was attempting to convey in this passage, by saying that as of the 60's AD, The Law was in a state of "GROWING Old, and BECOMING obsolete", and although still in existance, was at that time, "READY to vanish away."

What event had, as of the 60's AD, yet to take place, in order for these specific things that the writer of Hebrews looked for a "future fulfillment" of, to finally come to pass?

If it all, as you say, came to pass at the cross, Why, in your understanding, did the writer of Hebrews assert infallibly that their fulfillemnt was yet future?

[ Next Thread | Previous Thread | Next Message | Previous Message ]

Replies:

Re: Question #1 -- Nathan DuBois, 16:26:15 10/07/02 Mon