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Date Posted: Fri, May 16 2008, 16:34:53 GMT-10
Author: Ian
Subject: Re: 'mark' in-goal
In reply to: Jacob Grams 's message, "'mark' in-goal" on Mon, May 05 2008, 23:01:15 GMT-10

When is a player considered to have marked the ball
in-goal? Do both feet need to be in the in-goal for it
to be considered a mark? What should happen if one
foot is in and one foot is out?

This very thing occured in the Penrith V Parramatta game on Sat 3/5/08 when michael gordon caught the ball and raced the length and penrith scored only to be called back.To me and some other referees this should have been a try. I have asked our provider this question on 2 occasions in 3 years and i still have not got a reply from him. when this rule came out the reply given that unlike the foot being on or outside the touch/touch in goal or the deadball line, which says the player is deemed to be out, the catch of the ball in general play for it to be a 20m optional restart is that both feet were to be within the ingoal area. I have not read or been informed by any referees body to the contrary. There is NO refererence to this in the rule book(that i and a couple of other refs) could find. If it is written somewhere i would appreciate the reference to it. Thank You.

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