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Date Posted: 17:40:22 06/10/02 Mon
Author: Doug
Subject: Acts 2 - "gift of the Holy Spirit"

Jay Dee, and others,

I figured I would start the new thread and just give some introductory remarks concerning the passage.

In understanding Acts 2 and the "gift of the Holy Spirit" we must also consider Joel 2, since it is the very background of Peter's Pentecost sermon.

But first,however, I do not believe that the indwelling of the Spirit and "the gift of the Holy Spirit" are the same thing. I know many do but I differ with them on this matter. However, I do believe the Spirit indwells Christians (those who have repented and been immersed for the remission of sins) and that He indwells Me the same way the Father and Son do. I do not believe that any member of the Godhead indwells literally in my body, but dwells representatively through the Word. As David Lipscomb said, "The Spirit dwells as long as the Word indwells." It is a representative indwelling based upon my abiding in the Word. It is not an indwelling - a literal indwelling, a bodily indwelling, where the Holy Spirit is literally, actually in my body and which allegedly happens instantly after baptism, as so many intepret Acts 2:38. Acts 2:38 and "the gift of the Holy Spirit" have nothing to do, whatsoever, with indwelling nor are they related. So, number one (1), I believe that Acts 2:38 cannot be used as a "proof-text" for an alleged literal, bodily, actual indwelling of the Spirit. To use this passage as such is to destroy the context. And, number two (2), I do indeed believe in an indwelling but the question is, how? So, the argument is not that the Holy Spirit indwells me but how does He indwell me? Literally or actually or representatively or figuratively? I believe the latter. I believe the entire context of Joel 2 and Acts 2 can be understood completely, without relying on any other passage and that there is no need to use other passages in ascertaining the meaning of "the gift of the Holy Spirit."

The entire context of Joel 2:28-32 is concerning the miraculous activity of the Spirit - that there would be people who would possess spiritual gifts is indeed made clear. Now, instead of understanding this passage from 21 century goggles, we should understand it from the first century perspective. How would the audience on Pentecost have understood the "gift of the Holy Spirit"? Would they have understood it to mean the miraculous measure of the Spirit or would they understand that Peter was talking about an alleged, literal, bodily, non-miraculous indwelling, where you couldn't taste it, touch it, smell it, or see it, but you would just simply know it was there because you were told it would be there? In this context, "the gift" is something the Holy Spiirt gives (miraculous endowment of those of the 1st century) and not the Spirit Himself. The Spirit is not the gift but what He gives (miraculous endowment) is the gift! Very simply, it is THE GIFT of the Holy Spirit and not the gift OF THE HOLY SPIRIT :-) This is the use of metonymy (figure of speech), whereby the cause is put for the effect - the Spirit (cause) and the gift of miraculous enowment (the effect).


Brotherly,
Doug

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